Project PlanningFacilitating Processes

Answer A is the best answer. This is the PMI-defined reason for the differences between core and facilitating processes. Answer B is incorrect because facilitating processes are not optional. Answer C is tempting because it is generally true, but not the best answer. Answer D is incorrect because the quantitative risk analysis involves measuring.

Answer D is the PMI definition of quality planning. Answer A is incorrect because it is the definition of quality assurance. Answer B is incorrect because it is the definition of quality. Answer C is incorrect because it is the definition of quality control.

Answer B is the best answer because it codifies the overall intentions of the Jumping Gymboree organization with regard to quality. Answer A may be true, but it is not the best answer. Answer C would be appropriate if her new site were launched. Although Answer D is tempting, it does not provide the focus on quality.

Answer C is correct. Jeff provides fewer services or features than Ralph; therefore, he provides a lower-grade service. However, Jeff's service meets or exceeds the expectations and is therefore a high-quality service, whereas Ralph's service is inconsistent. Ralph will not continue to get more business if his quality remains poor; however, Jeff would be smart to consider adding a service or two. Answers A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not accurately reflect the facts in this explanation because Jeff's service is low grade and high quality.

Answer B is correct. The costs of quality are the total cost of all efforts to achieve quality, including work to conform and rework due to nonconformance. Answer A is incorrect because, although it touches on appraisal costs (quality control) and failure, it does not mention prevention costs. Answer C is incorrect because internal and external costs are related to failure costs, and stakeholder satisfaction relates to conformance costs, but appraisal costs are missing. Answer D is incorrect because these are tools and techniques for quality planning related to appraisal, but do not include the other items in the definition of cost of quality.

Answer C is correct. The quality management plan must address the project quality system, including the procedures and processes needed to implement the process. Answer A is incorrect because a quality management plan may be informal or formal, highly detailed or broadly framed, depending on the project. Answer B is tempting because, ideally, the quality management plan will address industry standards, but these are inputs to the quality planning process. Answer D is incorrect because a checklist is another output of the quality planning process, but not the quality plan. Federal approval is a red herring.

Answer A is the best answer. Understanding the complexity of the audience and the communications requirements is the first input to communications planning. Answers B and C may take place during the stakeholder analysis, but are not what needs to be compiled first. Answer D is often an option chosen in projects that get into trouble. Not considering all stakeholders in communications can lead to lack of acceptance in a project.

Answer B is correct. Allen has considered the availability of technology, the expected expertise of the recipient, and the possibility that the technology will change during the project. This is tricky because Answer A would be a logical route to pursue, and Answer C would be a factor to consider in the communication content, but not the method. Answer D is also tempting but not the best answer because other stakeholders do matter, but the method can be tailored to their needs as well.

Answer A is correct. The broadly framed statement does not mention data collection or storage. Answer B is incorrect because the project control board will assess information between scheduled communications. Answer C is incorrect because the project control board would also serve the function of modifying the plan if necessary. Answer D is incorrect because a communications matrix is the production schedule of when each type of communication will be produced.

Answer C is the best answer. Communications plans must be devised to avoid wasting resources with inappropriate technology or unnecessary information. Answer A addresses the unnecessary information portion of the problem, but not the inappropriate technology issue. Although Answer B might be more and more true in society, it is not stated in the question. Answer D would be true if the technology choice were appropriate.

Answer A is correct and includes all stakeholders. Answers B and C are incorrect because they are missing stakeholders. Answer D is incorrect because it is the definition of organizational planning.

Answer B is the correct answer. Answer A is incorrect because her past autocratic techniques might not work in a temporary environment. Answer C is probably true, but it is not the best answer. Answer D, the X theory of management, is another term used for an authoritarian management style.

Answer C is correct. Gina's detail orientation might not be helping to develop buy-in from the rest of the team members. Answer A is incorrect because it is not the best answer, although at times a lessons-learned session in an early stage of a project can help. Answers B and D are incorrect because requesting referent power will not likely resolve this situation. Referent power involves borrowing of authority from a functional manager, which could actually make the situation worse, if not utilized correctly.

Answer A is correct. Answers B, C, and D are all inputs to human resources planning. Templates are a tool used in HR planning.

Answer B is correct, according to PMI's definition of project interface inputs into organizational planning. Answers A, C, and D are incorrect because they are not the correct definition according to the PMBOK. This is a straightforward memorization-type question.

Answer B is correct and is PMI's definition of staffing requirements. Answer A is incorrect because resource requirements may also include materials and supplies. Answer C is incorrect because there is no evaluation material mentioned in the question. Answer D is tempting, but the information does not include dependencies, and is therefore not a project schedule. Further, PMI depicts the project plan as a grouping of planning documents, not the project schedule.

Answer B is correct. Although Answer A is tempting, the better answer is that it is a constraint. Answer C is incorrect because the project's scope is clearly to deliver a new ice cream flavor. Answer D is incorrect, although the constraint could be a result of a labor agreement.

Answer A is correct. Group think can cause collective rationalization, and pressures for conformity that are counterproductive to good problem solving. Answers B, C, and D are incorrect because they are techniques for avoiding group think.

Answer C is correct. Coaching is an HR practice listed as a tool and technique within organizational planning. Answer A is tempting because often coaching does occur as a corrective action. Answer B is incorrect because coaches are usually managers on organizational charts. Answer D is incorrect because coaching is not related to stakeholder analysis.

Answer B is correct. Project managers need to be aware of the effect of the corporate grapevine, either good or bad, because it can influence morale on a project. Answer A is incorrect because often grapevine information is incorrect. Answers C and D may be true, but are not the best answers.

Answer A is correct. The responsibility assignment matrix (RAM) is used to link role assignments closely to scope and the WBS. Answer B is incorrect because a resource pool description is an input to schedule development. Answers C and D are nonexistent artifacts.

Answer A is correct. PMI states that particular attention should be paid to how staff are released from a project. It is also possible to improve morale by reducing uncertainty with continual communication. Answer D is tempting because all items are elements of a staffing management plan, but Answer A is the best answer. Answers B and C are incorrect because they would not likely resolve the entire situation.

Answer A is correct. Performance evaluations are not an output of human resources planning. Answers B, C, and D are outputs of the human resource planning process and therefore incorrect answers to this question.

Answer B is correct. Whenever using the activity on arrow format, the activities are linked by circles that are known as events. The event is used to show the finish of activities entering into it and the start of activities that are going out of it. Answer A is incorrect because it does not fully answer the question. Answer C is incorrect because predecessors only describe the activities that occur before the event. Answer D is incorrect because network loops are perpetually repeating relationships among activities and cannot occur in a network diagram.

Answer B is correct. Rick's only real choice here is to negotiate. Answer A could be employed, if his negotiations fail, but it is not the best answer. Answer C is incorrect because we do not know the scope of the project, and whether it can be done by one person. Answer D is incorrect because Rick has no authority for outside recruitment.

Answer B is correct. Employee competencies, previous experience, personal interests, availability, and characteristics are all part of the staffing pool description. Answer A is incorrect; although past performance is considered, the performance reviews are not part of the description. Answer C is generally illegal to include. Answer D is incorrect because billing rate is not part of the description.

Answer C is correct. Answers A and B are not outputs of staff acquisition. Answer D is incorrect because Answers A and B are not included.

Answer D is correct. A SWOT analysis is a technique for risk identification. Answers A, B, and C are incorrect acronyms.

Answer B is correct, and the definition of risk identification from PMI. Answer A is incorrect, but a hoped-for goal on all projects. Answer C is incorrect because a Pareto analysis would be part of quantitative risk analysis. Answer D is incorrect, but a good skill for a project manager to have.

Answer C is correct. Involving stakeholders and nonproject team members is key to developing an unbiased analysis of risk. Answer A is incorrect because it does not iterate through another pass of evaluation. Answer B is tempting, and often where many project managers end, but it is not the best answer. Answer D is not done until after risk qualification and quantification are done.

Answer D is correct. FDA rulings and regulations are an example of an external risk. An example of an internal risk might be lack of funding for a project. A technical risk is the capability of producing the product with a new process. Iterative product development is not associated with risks. Answer A is incorrect because an internal risk would likely be generated within his own company and not an organization such as the FDA. Answer B is incorrect because this example does not involve a technical risk. Answer C is incorrect because iterative product development involves the different stages that a product evolves into over time and is not applicable to this situation.

Answer C is correct. A force majeure is an external risk, such as a flood or an earthquake that generally requires disaster recovery rather than risk management. Answer A is tempting because an earthquake is a type of external risk, but it is not the best answer. Answer B is incorrect because organizational risks involve scope time or cost. Answer D is incorrect because Project Management risks involve poor planning.

Answer B is correct. The technical risks associated with the product development should concern you because they are unproven. Answer A is incorrect because the golf manufacturer has clearly developed products in the past. Answers C and D might concern you, but they are not the best answers.

Answer A is correct. The risks posed are both inadequate planning and inadequate funding in scope, time, and resources. Answer B is incorrect because the source of the risk is internal: the CIO. Answer C is incorrectalthough the rapid development concept is relatively new, there is no new technology in creating a methodology. Answer D may be true, but it is not a risk category identified by PMI.

Answer C is correct. The Delphi technique is a way to reach consensus with experts via questionnaire. Answer A is incorrect because brainstorming is generally not done by questionnaire, but in a facilitated session. Answer B is incorrect because a questionnaire is being used. Interviewing involves one-on-one conversations. Answer D is incorrect because assumption analysis is not a technique identified by PMI.

Answer C is correct. The Delphi technique is useful because participation is anonymous, and the multiple iterations generate a consensus without undue bias. Answers A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not allow the source to be anonymous. This anonymity will likely lead to the least-biased results.

Answer D is correct. Ishikawa, fishbone, or cause-and-effect diagrams are used in all the quality processes as well as risk identification. Answers A, B, and C are incorrect because Ishikawa is not used in quality control, quality planning, or activity sequencing.

Answer D is correct. The WBS is not a diagramming technique; however, it is an input to risk identification. Answers A, B, and C are incorrect because system processes diagrams, fishbone diagrams, and influence diagrams are all diagramming techniques that can be used in risk identification and therefore are incorrect answers to this question.

Answer C is correct. The state trooper lights are a risk trigger, or a warning sign or indication that a risk is about to occur. It isn't definite because you don't know yet whether the state trooper car is after you. Answers A and B may be true to a certain extent, but are not the best answers to this question. Answer D is incorrect because the state trooper car is not the risk.

Answer C is correct. Jane's coughing and chills are a risk trigger and could be an indicator that she might have the Asian flu. Answer A is incorrect because the risk response is not stated in the question. Answer B is incorrect because there has not been a cause-and-effect relationship developed in this situation. Answer D is incorrect because she has not actually been diagnosed as having the flu.

Answer C is correct, and the definition of qualitative risk analysis. Quantitative risk analysis is defined as the numeric analysis of probability of each risk. Risk management is the overall set of risk activities. Risk assessment is not a PMI term. Answers A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not involve assessing the impact and likelihood of identified risks.

Answer A is correct. Qualitative risk analysis focuses on probability, and does not use interviewing as a technique. Risk identification and quantitative risk analysis do use interviewing as a technique. Answers B, C, and D are correct reasons for interviewing and therefore are incorrect for this question.

Answer A is correct. The time criticality of a risk-related action can increase the importance of a risk. Answer B is incorrect because quality of information can actually reduce risk. Answer C is incorrect because mitigation strategies do not magnify a risk. Answer D is incorrect because prioritization is a tool that is used in risk response development.

Answer A is correct. Data precision is defined as the information about a risk. Answer B is incorrect because the probability and impact are a technique of qualitative risk analysis. Answer C is incorrect because assumptions are another input. Answer D is incorrect because prioritization is an output of qualitative risk analysis.

Answer D is correct. Aaron's project spans multiple departments and locations and is using an unproven technology; therefore, the project has a higher risk profile. Answer A is incorrect because James's team is collocated. Answer B is incorrect because, even with experts, the complexity of his project makes it risky. Answer C is incorrect because James is using proven technology.

Answer D is correct. Answer A is incorrect because it describes the actual qualitative ratings. Answers B and C are incorrect because they are risk consequences.

Answer B is correct. An ordinal scale is rank-ordered values. Answer A is incorrect because a probability scale is between 0 and 1. Answer C is incorrect because a cardinal scale assigns values to impacts. Answer D is incorrect because linear and nonlinear values are used in cardinal scales.

Answer D is correct. Answer A is incorrect, and generally not true. Probability does not require a mathematician. Answer B is incorrect because data precision is an input to qualitative risk analysis. Answer C is true, but not the best answer for this question.

Answer C is correct. Answers A, B, and D are all items to consider when ranking data precision. A probability impact matrix is a tool in qualitative risk analysis, separate from data precision ranking.

Answer C is correct. Low precision rankings mean there might be a lack of understanding about the risk, and therefore more data is needed for useful qualitative analysis. Answer A is incorrect because the analysis most likely included the project team. Answer B is incorrect because the low rankings point to a need for further information. Answer D is tempting, but also incorrect for this question.

Answer B is correct. Answers A, C, and D are all outputs of qualitative risk analysis. Answer B is an output of risk identification.

Answer A is correct. Answer B is incorrect because it is the opposite of Answer A. Answer C is tempting because it is often true that they are done at the same time; however, the objectives of the two functions are different. Answer D is not true because both processes use the risk management plan as inputs.

Answer B is correct. Answer A is incorrect because quantitative analysis focuses on the probability of achieving the cost and time objectives, not necessarily the entire project's success. Answers C and D are tools used in quantitative risk analysis, not objectives of the process.

Answer B is correct. A decision tree focuses on the probability and cost outcome of a particular decision path and provides the means to analyze which decision would provide the highest expected value. Answer A is the critical path method and is used in scheduling, not risk analysis. Answer C is incorrect because sensitivity analysis is used to determine what risks have the most impact on the project. Answer D is tempting because expert judgment is used so often in projects, but it is not the correct answer.

Answer C is correct. A risk response plan must be agreed upon by all parties involved. Answers A, B, and D are attributes of risk response planning.

Answer A is correct. Answer B is incorrect because it is an objective of quantitative risk analysis. Answer C is incorrect because it is a part of risk control and monitoring. Answer D is tempting, but incorrect, because risk response planning doesn't reduce a threat; it determines actions to take to reduce a threat or enhance an opportunity.

Answer D is correct. By changing your project plan, you are attempting to avoid or eliminate the risk entirely. Answers A, B, and C, use different tactics to mitigate risk, and are therefore incorrect.

Answer C is correct. By using contractors with a fixed price, she is transferring the risk of the new technology and coding schedule performance to the contract company. Answers A, B, and D are not this type of risk strategy.

Answer B is correct. By taking action to reduce the probability of hidden problems by delivering more frequently, you are mitigating the possibility of the problems. This is not to say that some might still exist. Answer A is tempting because agile programming is, in effect, the mitigation strategy. Answers C and D are different risk strategies.

Answer D is correct. Answers A, B, and C are inputs to risk response planning.

Answer C is correct. Risk response plans do not include contractual agreements, although they are an output of risk response planning. Answers A, B, and D are all elements that should be included in the risk response plan.

Answer B is correct. Answer A is incorrect, and is the definition of a secondary risk. Answer C is tempting because of the word residual, but it is not true. Answer D is an output of risk planning and would involve other risk response plans.

Answer C is correct. Procurement planning should be done during the scope definition effort, according to the PMBOK. Answer B is tricky because the question defines procurement planningbut this is the process, not the timing of when to do it. Answers A and D are not the appropriate processes during which procurement planning should take place.

Answer A is correct. Ray is in need of specialized services from a single firm. Depending on who else happens to need their services, he might or might not be able to afford them. Answer B is incorrect because it is an input to procurement planning, but not a factor that will influence Ray's planning. Answers C and D are incorrect because they are tools and techniques of procurement planning.

Answer B is correct. Ron needs to do a make-or-buy analysis, which involves determining the lowest cost. Answer A is tempting but it is not the appropriate tool for this issue. Answer C may be true, but it is not the best answer. Answer D is incorrect because contacting a consultant would not provide him with any new information he does not have.

Answer A is correct. Fixed-price contracts put the burden on the seller to produce the product or deliverable within the specified time for a specified cost. Answer B is incorrect because the costs are recoverable by the seller, so if they go over budget, costs are still recovered. Answer C is incorrect because cost plus enables the seller to achieve a profit in addition to all the costs associated. Cost plus is another form of cost reimbursable. Time and material contracts shift the risk entirely to the purchaser. Answer D is incorrect because time and material pricing puts the burden on the buyer because the seller does not have an incentive to keep costs low.

Answer A is correct. A statement of work requires sufficient detail for the prospective seller to determine whether he can and wants to do the work required. Answer B is incorrect because a contract involves pricing and timing and sometimes performance incentives. Answer C is incorrect because the procurement management plan describes how the remaining procurement processes will be governed. Answer D is tempting because, in essence, an SOW is a scope definition; however, this is not the best answer.

Answer C is correct. Answer A is incorrect because the SOWs are developed in procurement planning. Answer B is incorrect because it is the opposite of Answer C. Answer D is incorrect because evaluation criteria are an output of solicitation planning.

Answer C is correct. A meeting with prospective vendors is called a bidding conference, or a prebid conference. Answer A is incorrect because kickoff meetings involve all stakeholders, and are associated with the project, not solicitation. Answer B is incorrect because bidder conferences, as long as all bidders are on equal footing, are perfectly legal and good practice. Answer D is incorrect but tempting because it is also a tool and technique of solicitation planning.

Answer B is correct. PMBOK states that considering potential vendors during the procurement planning may help exercise influence over the contract. Answer A is incorrect because the qualified seller list is an input to solicitation. Answer C is incorrect but tempting because vendors are considered during solicitation planning and solicitation. Answer D may be true, but it is not the best answer.

Answer B is the correct answer. The calculation is

Latest Finish (55)Earliest Finish (30)=Slack (25)

Therefore, Answers A, C, and D are incorrect.

Answer D is the correct answer. None of these events has a negative slack. The calculations are

Event 1 Latest Finish (55)Earliest Finish (30)=Slack (25)

Event 2 Latest Finish (25)Earliest Finish (16)=Slack (9)

Event 3 Latest Finish (92)Earliest Finish (40)=Slack (52)

Event 4 Latest Finish (96)Earliest Finish (21)=Slack (75)

Therefore, Answers A, B, and C are incorrect.

Answer B is the correct answer. The calculation is

Event 1 Latest Finish (55)Earliest Finish (30)=Slack (25)

Event 2 Latest Finish (25)Earliest Finish (16)=Slack (9)

Event 3 Latest Finish (92)Earliest Finish (40)=Slack (52)

Event 4 Latest Finish (96)Earliest Finish (21)=Slack (75)

Total Slack (161)=Slack 1 (25)+Slack 2 (9)+Slack 3 (52)+Slack 4 (75)

Therefore, Answers A, C, and D are incorrect.

Answer A is the correct answer. In addition to identifying the paths that have potential slippage and the critical path for the project, the project manager needs to look for paths that have negative slack. Answer B is incorrect because zero slack is not necessarily bad unless you anticipate some events that were not identified in the estimates and could cause delays. Answer C is incorrect because a positive slack is advantageous to the project manager as a contingency, who uses it for unidentified issues that arise. Answer D is incorrect because there is no Project Management concept that would have a delayed slack effect for the project.

Answer C is the correct answer. Answer A is incorrect because paths with zero or negative values (not positive slack) are referred to as critical paths. Answer B is incorrect because it is an incorrect term for this question. Answer D is incorrect because a schedule variance is the difference between the actual schedule and the budgeted schedule.

Answer A is the correct answer. Earliest start and finish times are calculated by working through the network diagram from the first task to the last task. Answer B is incorrect because the backward pass calculation is formulated by working from the end of the project to the beginning of it. Answer C is incorrect because progressive elaborations are not associated with forward or backward pass calculations. Answer D is incorrect; however, it might sound correct because of questions on the test that use common everyday words to simplify complex concepts.

Answer A is the correct answer. The calculation is

Latest Start (208)=Latest Finish (245)Duration (37)

Therefore, Answers B, C, and D are incorrect.

Answer D is the best answer. Laddering is done to show how a subject matter expert can complete one task and then go forward to complete the same task as another subject matter expert begins the second task that had a dependency upon the first task (for example, trimming and then painting rooms in a house). Answer A is incorrect because Activity on Arrow is another type of formatting that uses arrows to show relationships between tasks. Answer B is incorrect because looping in a network diagram is not possible because the task would perpetually repeat itself without being completed. Answer C is correct because serial processing is the sequential completion of tasks throughout a network diagram; however, it is not the best response because the diagram has multiple sequences going on simultaneously.

Answer B is the correct answer. This network diagram is formatted in activity in box formatting. Answer A is incorrect because AOA is activity on arrow, which is a different type of formatting. Answer C is incorrect because a work breakdown structure is not a network logic type of formatting. Answer D is incorrect because a Responsibility Assignment Matrix (RAM) is a reporting deliverable that is not associated with type of network diagram.

Answer C is the correct answer. The calculation is

T (Duration Estimate)=Estimate (Optimistic)+4 (Most Likely)+ Estimate (Pessimistic)''6

Therefore, (7+4[10]+22)''6= 11.5 rounded to 12

Therefore Answers A, B, and D are incorrect.